by Anna Von Reitz

I have been asked (indeed, hounded) by people desperately searching for reliable guides to inform their actions in favor of restoring the land-based and lawful government we are all owed. 


This in turn requires some basic understandings, and rather than explain this to each of 390 million people, please read, post, and pass this on. 

https://theamericanstatesassembly.net/

All forms of law except Natural Law (Law of Gravity, Law of Heredity, etc.) come from religion. This is because our religion establishes what we consider "right" and "wrong" and that in turn establishes our Law. 


The Law of the Land in the Western World is based on the Mosaic Law of the Bible, which is common to Judaism, Christianity, and Islam.  The Ten Commandments are the basis of the Law of the Land, which in this country is American Common Law.  The Constitution is also formed under Common Law and is called the "Law of the Land" by the Federal Government to distinguish it as the "law" that they must obey when dealing with us, the people of the United States, and our unincorporated states on the land known as the States of America. 

 Justices, popularly called "judges" in our Common Law Courts are NOT members of any Bar Association, do not hold any titles of nobility, and serve as either Magistrates (as when a Justice of the Peace performs a marriage) or Members of the Court (as when they pronounce the sentence required by the Trial Jury).  

Common Law Justices aka "Judges" do not instruct juries in the sense of telling them what to do or in the sense of interpreting the Law--- that is the job of the juries----justices serve as a resource if juries have questions about court procedures and that sort of thing,  but they do not interfere with or direct or seek to influence the juries in their determinations. Common Law Justices take their instructions from juries, both Grand Juries and Trial Juries.

The Law of the Sea is international in nature and is based on the Law Merchant derived from the Code of Hammurabi (Maritime "Commercial" Law) and the Law of the Sea (Admiralty) which derived from the Satanic Law of Sumeria and the Phoenicians--- the source of the word "phony". This is the "legal" system of the sea jurisdiction as opposed to the "lawful" system of the land.  As you might expect, the Law of the Sea is based on deceit, as it derives from the worship of the Father of All Lies.  

The judges in these courts are either business administrators or acting as priests of the Crown Temple. They are required to be Bar Association attorneys by the rules of their Jural Societies called Bar Associations and have taken Oaths of Nullification, known as the Kol Nidre, which according to the underlying religion of the Sea allows them to void any agreement they make, break their word with impunity and act deceitfully (commit fraud) without consequence.  These characters "simulate" judicial proceedings so as to --- in their own words in the Federal Code of Civil Procedure --- give an "appearance" of justice. These judges use juries as props in a play, and basically bully and "direct" juries to deliver whatever outcome the judge wants. 

Law of the Land = Our Father,  Law of the Sea = Lucifer. 

There is also the Law of the Air, which is global in jurisdiction, and ecumenical.  It has only three laws: keep the peace, do no harm, treat others as you would like to be treated yourself. If you obey these Laws of the Air,  you automatically fulfill all other laws and stand above any other form of law. 

Now that you know where law comes from and realize the distinctions between American Common Law and the international Law of the Sea, you will not be surprised by the rich feast of information contained in the following highly recommended textbook: 

The Excellence of the Common Law by Brent Winters, available on Amazon.com.  

This is NOT an inexpensive book ($70), nor is it light-weight, but it is the most readable, responsible, and enlightening book I have ever read concerning the Common Law, and it very helpfully compares and contrasts the Common Law against the sea-going Civil Law.  It is also written in a way that is careful to explain legalese in a way that laymen can easily understand. Anyone who wishes to participate in and restore the American Common Law Court System as a Justice or other Member of the Court --- Clerks, Bailiffs,Sheriffs, Coroners--- should read this book from cover to cover. 

For assistance in setting up lawful county and state governments on the land jurisdiction of the United States and filling vacated Public Offices:  

See Correct Your Political Status
https://theamericanstatesassembly.net/

For assistance in threading through the confusing maze of deceptively similar names and other means of misrepresentation and mischaracterization that have plagued us all for generations, I highly commend the work of Robb Ryder, and especially his YouTube video entitled "The Stile of this confederacy" available at this link: 

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mHbxM3rGCVA&feature=share

Spend the hour this video requires and take notes.  Then revisit it and take notes again. Repeat until you are able to easily tell the difference between "United States of America" and "The United States of America" and the various other distinctions used to confuse and defraud Americans. 

These resources will enable you to (1) restore the American Common Law Courts, (2) rebuild your lawful government, and  (3) translate your way through the best attempts of lawyers to obscure the true parties of interest in any "legal" process. 

God bless Brent Winters, Michigan General Jural Society, and Robb Ryder who have done inestimable service for their fellowman and especially for the American people who stand in such need of these helps and instructions now. 
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See this article and over 100 others on Anna's website here:www.annavonreitz.com
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Dear Friends,
 
For an entity to become a corporation under federal law,
there must be an Act of Congress creating that corporation.
 
There are no Acts of Congress expressly incorporating
either the "United States" or the "United States of America".
 
In 1871 Congress did expressly incorporate the District
of Columbia, but D.C. and the "United States" are not
one and the same.  In that Act of 1871, Congress also
expressly extended the U.S. Constitution into D.C.:
 
http://www.supremelaw.org/cc/gilberts/intentm3.filed.htm#1871
 
In United States v. Cooper Corporation, 312 U.S. 600 (1941),
the Supreme Court wrote:
 
http://caselaw.findlaw.com/us-supreme-court/312/600.html
 
"We may say in passing that the argument that the
United States may be treated as a corporation
organized under its own laws, that is, under the
Constitution as the fundamental law, seems so strained
as not to merit serious consideration ."
 
 
Some of the confusion rampant on this subject may have
originated in the definition of "UNITED STATES OF
AMERICA" in Bouvier's Law Dictionary here:
 
http://www.supremelaw.org/ref/dict/bldu1.htm#union
 
See Paragraph 5 quoted here:
 
"5.  The United States of America are a corporation
endowed with the capacity to sue and be sued, to convey
and receive property.  1 Marsh. Dec. 177, 181.
But it is proper to observe that no suit can be brought
against the United States without authority of law."
 
Note that the plural verb "are" was used, providing further
evidence that the "United States of America" are plural,
as implied by the plural term "States".  Also, the author
of that definition switches to "United States" in the second
sentence.  This only adds to the confusion, because the
term "United States" has three (3) different legal meanings:
 
http://www.supremelaw.org/decs/hooven/hooven.htm#united.states
 
However, the decision cited above is Justice Marshall issuing dictum,
and it is NOT an Act of Congress.  Here, again,
be very wary of courts attempting to "legislate" in the absence
of a proper Act of Congress.  See 1 U.S.C. 101 for the
statute defining the required enacting clause:
 
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/1/101.html
 
And, pay attention to what was said in that definition here:
"no suit can be brought against the United States
without authority of law".  That statement is not only
correct;  it also provides another important clue:
Congress has conferred legal standing on the "United States"
to sue and be sued at 28 U.S.C. 1345 and 1346, respectively:
 
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/28/1345.html
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/28/1346.html
 
Congress has NOT conferred comparable legal standing
upon the "United States of America" to sue, or be sued,
as such.
 
Furthermore, under the Articles of Confederation, the term
"United States of America" is the "stile" or phrase that was used
to describe the Union formed legally by those Articles:
 
Articles of Confederation and perpetual Union between the States
of New Hampshire, Massachusetts bay, Rhode Island and Providence
Plantations, Connecticut, New York, New Jersey, Pennsylvania,
Delaware, Maryland, Virginia, North Carolina, South Carolina and
Georgia.
 
Article I.  The Stile of this Confederacy shall be
"The United States of America."
 
Article II.  Each state retains its sovereignty, freedom,
and independence, and every power, jurisdiction, and right,
which is not by this Confederation expressly delegated
to the United States, in Congress assembled.”
 
[end excerpt]
 
 
When they came together the first time to form
a Union of several (plural) States, they decided
to call themselves the "United States of America".
 
Note also that those Articles clearly distinguished
"United States of America" from "United States"
in Congress assembled.  The States formally
delegated certain powers to the federal government,
which is clearly identified in those Articles as the
"United States".
 
Therefore, the "United States of America" now refer to
the 50 States of the Union, and the term "United States"
refers to the federal government.
 
The term "United States" is the term that is used consistently now
throughout Title 28 to refer to the federal government domiciled
in D.C.  There is only ONE PLACE in all of Title 28 where the
term "United States of America" is used, and there it is used
in correct contradistinction to "United States":
 
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/28/1746.html
 
Because Title 28 contains statutes which govern all federal courts,
the consistent use of "United States" to refer to the federal
government carries enormous weight.  Title 28 is the latest word
on this subject, as revised, codified and enacted into positive law
on June 25, 1948.  Moreover, the Supremacy Clause elevates
Title 28 to the status of supreme Law of the Land.
 
To make matters worse and to propagate more confusion,
the entity "UNITED STATES OF AMERICA"
incorporated twice in the State of Delaware:
 
http://www.supremelaw.org/cc/usa.inc
http://www.supremelaw.org/cc/usa.corp
 
 
The main problem that arises from these questions is that
United States Attorneys are now filing lawsuits and
prosecuting criminal INDICTMENTS in the name of the
"UNITED STATES OF AMERICA" [sic]
but without any powers of attorney to do so.  Compare
28 U.S.C. 547 (which confers powers of attorney to represent
the "United States" and its agencies in federal courts):
 
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/28/547.html
 
They are NOT "United States of America Attorneys", OK?
 
First of all, they do NOT have any powers of attorney
to represent Delaware corporations in federal courts;
Congress never appropriated funds for them to do so
and Congress never conferred any powers of attorney
on them to do so either.
 
Secondly, the 50 States are already adequately represented
by their respective State Attorneys General;  therefore,
U.S. Attorneys have no powers of attorney to represent
any of the 50 States of the Union, or any of their agencies,
either.
 
They are "U.S. Attorneys" NOT "U.S.A. Attorneys", OK?
 
Accordingly, it is willful misrepresentation for any U.S. Attorney
to attempt to appear in any State or federal court on behalf
of the "UNITED STATES OF AMERICA" [sic].  And,
such misrepresentation is actionable under the McDade Act
at 28 U.S.C. 530B:
 
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/28/530B.html
 
 
There are quite a few "activists" running around the Internet
claiming that the "United States" and the "United States of
America" are both corporations.  These claims are not correct,
for the reasons already stated above.
 
A similar error occurs when these so-called “activists” cite
the federal statute at 28 U.S.C. 3002 as their only “proof”
that the “United States” was incorporated by Congress.
Here’s the pertinent text of that statute:
 
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/28/3002.html
 
As used in this chapter:
...
(15)  "United States" means --
(A)  a Federal corporation;
(B)  an agency, department, commission, board, or
other entity of the United States;  or
(C)  an instrumentality of the United States.
 
[end excerpt]
 
 
First of all, note well that the stated scope of this definition
is limited to “this chapter” i.e. CHAPTER 176 of Title 28 –
Federal Debt Collection Procedures.  Overlooking the
limited scope of such definitions is a very common error
among many, if not all self-styled experts.  At best, this section
cannot be used as evidence that the federal government
should be treated as a valid corporation for all other intents
and purposes.  It takes a LOT more text than this one limited
definition to create any federal corporation!  Compare the
original Statutes at Large that created the Union Pacific
Railroad Company, for example.
 
Secondly, from the evidence above it should already
be clear that the “United States” (federal government)
is not now, and never has been, a federal corporation.
The statute at 28 U.S.C. 3002 merely defines the
term “United States” to embrace all existing federal
corporations.  Because the United States was not
an existing corporation when Congress enacted
section 3002, that statute did not create and could
not have created the United States as a federal
corporation in the first instance.
 
Thirdly, in Eisner v. Macomber the U.S. Supreme Court
told Congress that it was barred from re-defining
any terms that are used in the federal Constitution.
“United States” occurs in several places, because it is central
to the entire purpose of that Constitution.  Therefore,
the legislative attempt to re-define “United States” at
section 3002 is necessarily unconstitutional, because
it violates the Eisner Prohibition.
 
Fourthly, section 3002 also exhibits 2 subtle tautologies,
which render it null and void for vagueness.  Here they are,
in case you missed them:
 
“United States” means … an agency, department, commission,
board, or other entity of the United States;
or
“United States” means … an instrumentality of the United States.
 
It is a fundamental violation of proper English grammar to use
the term being defined in any definition of that term, and such a
violation has clearly happened here.  If you don’t yet recognize
the tautologies, then change one part of this definition to read:
 
The term “United States” here also embraces any instrumentality
of the federal government.
 
At the very least, this minor change eliminates the tautology and
removes the vagueness.  Nevertheless, such an attempt to re-define
the term “United States” still violates the Eisner Prohibition.
 
For a newspaper-level Press Release which further explores some
of the many legal ramifications of these widespread errors, please
see this Internet URL:
 
http://www.supremelaw.org/press/rels/cracking.title.28.htm
 
 
Sincerely yours,
/s/ Paul Andrew Mitchell, B.A., M.S.
Private Attorney General, Criminal Investigator and
Federal Witness:  18 U.S.C. 1510, 1512-13, 1964(a)
http://www.supremelaw.org/decs/agency/private.attorney.general.htm
http://www.supremelaw.org/index.htm
http://www.supremelaw.org/support.policy.htm
http://www.supremelaw.org/guidelines.htm
 
All Rights Reserved without Prejudice
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